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2016 May 100-101 Study Guide Questions:

Q31. How many addresses will be available for dynamic NAT translation when a router is configured with the following commands? 

Router(config)#ip nat pool TAME 209.165.201.23 209.165.201.30 netmask 

255.255.255.224 

Router(config)#ip nat inside source list 9 pool TAME 

A. 7 

B. 8 

C. 9 

D. 10 

E. 24 

F. 32 

Answer: B 


Q32. Refer to the exhibit. 


SwitchA receives the frame with the addressing shown in the exhibit. According to the command output also shown in the exhibit, how will SwitchA handle this frame? 

A. It will drop the frame. 

B. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/6 only. 

C. It will forward the frame out port Fa0/3 only. 

D. It will flood the frame out all ports. 

E. It will flood the frame out all ports except Fa0/3. 

Answer: E 


Q33. Refer to the exhibit. 


What is the simplest way to configure routing between the regional office network 10.89.0.0/20 and the corporate network? 

A. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.2 

B. router2(config)#ip route 10.89.3.0 255.255.0.0 10.89.16.2 

C. router1(config)#ip route 10.89.0.0 255.255.240.0 10.89.16.1 

D. router2(config)#ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 10.89.16.1 

Answer: D 


Q34. What is the OSPF default frequency, in seconds, at which a Cisco router sends hello packets on a multi-access network? 

A. 10 

B. 40 

C. 30 

D. 20 

Answer: A 


Q35. A router has learned three possible routes that could be used to reach a destination network. One route is from EIGRP and has a composite metric of 20514560. Another route is from OSPF with a metric of 782. The last is from RIPv2 and has a metric of 4. Which route or routes will the router install in the routing table? 

A. the OSPF route 

B. the EIGRP route 

C. the RIPv2 route 

D. all three routes 

E. the OSPF and RIPv2 routes 

Answer: B 


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Q36. In the configuration of NAT, what does the keyword overload signify? 

A. When bandwidth is insufficient, some hosts will not be allowed to access network translation. 

B. The pool of IP addresses has been exhausted. 

C. Multiple internal hosts will use one IP address to access external network resources. 

D. If the number of available IP addresses is exceeded, excess traffic will use the specified address pool. 

Answer: C 


Q37. Which two options will help to solve the problem of a network that is suffering a broadcast storm? (Choose two.) 

A. a bridge 

B. a router 

C. a hub 

D. a Layer 3 switch 

E. an access point 

Answer: BD 


Q38. Refer to the exhibit. 


A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port 

Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected? 

A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected. 

B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled. 

C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower. 

D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume. 

Answer: D 


Q39. Which two statements describe characteristics of IPv6 unicast addressing? (Choose two.) 

A. Global addresses start with 2000::/3. 

B. Link-local addresses start with FE00:/12. 

C. Link-local addresses start with FF00::/10. 

D. There is only one loopback address and it is ::1. 

E. If a global address is assigned to an interface, then that is the only allowable address for the interface. 

Answer: AD 


Q40. An administrator must assign static IP addresses to the servers in a network. For network 192.168.20.24/29, the router is assigned the first usable host address while the sales server is given the last usable host address. 

Which of the following should be entered into the IP properties box for the sales server? 

A. IP address: 192.168.20.14 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.9 

B. IP address: 192.168.20.254 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.0 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.1 

C. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.248 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25 

D. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.17 

E. IP address: 192.168.20.30 Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240 Default Gateway: 192.168.20.25 

Answer: C 


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Precise ccna 100-101 book:

Q41. What is the subnet broadcast address of the LAN connected to Router1? 

A. 192.168.8.15 

B. 192.168.8.31 

C. 192.168.8.63 

D. 192.168.8.127 

Answer: A 


Q42. Which statement describes the process ID that is used to run OSPF on a router? 

A. It is globally significant and is used to represent the AS number. 

B. It is locally significant and is used to identify an instance of the OSPF database. 

C. It is globally significant and is used to identify OSPF stub areas. 

D. It is locally significant and must be the same throughout an area. 

Answer: B 


Q43. What are two benefits of using a single OSPF area network design? (Choose two.) 

A. It is less CPU intensive for routers in the single area. 

B. It reduces the types of LSAs that are generated. 

C. It removes the need for virtual links. 

D. It increases LSA response times. 

E. It reduces the number of required OSPF neighbor adjacencies. 

Answer: BC 


Q44. Refer to the exhibit. 


If the resume command is entered after the sequence that is shown in the exhibit, which router prompt will be displayed? 

A. Router1> 

B. Router1# 

C. Router2> 

D. Router2# 

Answer: C 


Q45. Which command is used to display the collection of OSPF link states? 

A. show ip ospf link-state 

B. show ip ospf lsa database 

C. show ip ospf neighbors 

D. show ip ospf database 

Answer: D 



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