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2016 Jun 350-018 latest dumps:
Q169. Which three routing characteristics are relevant for DMVPN Phase 3? (Choose three.)
A. Hubs must not preserve the original IP next-hop.
B. Hubs must preserve the original IP next-hop.
C. Split-horizon must be turned off for RIP and EIGRP.
D. Spokes are only routing neighbors with hubs.
E. Spokes are routing neighbors with hubs and other spokes.
F. Hubs are routing neighbors with other hubs and must use the same routing protocol as that used on hub-spoke tunnels.
Q170. Which two EAP methods may be susceptible to offline dictionary attacks? (Choose two.)
C. PEAP with MS-CHAPv2
Q171. Which statement about ISO/IEC 27001 is true?
A. ISO/IEC 27001.is only intended to report security breaches to the management authority.
B. ISO/IEC 27001 was reviewed by the International Organization for Standardization.
C. ISO/IEC 27001 is intend to bring information security under management control.
D. ISO/IEC 27001 was reviewed by the International Electrotechnical Commission.
E. ISO/IEC 27001 was published by ISO/IEC.
Q172. Which three types of traffic are processed by CoPP configured on the device? (Choose three.)
A. tansient traffic
B. routing protocol traffic
C. IPsec traffic
D. traffic that is destined to the device interface
E. any traffic filtered by the access list
F. traffic from a management protocol such as Telnet or SNMP
Q173. Which three statements about the RSA algorithm are true? (Choose three.)
A. The RSA algorithm provides encryption but not authentication.
B. The RSA algorithm provides authentication but not encryption.
C. The RSA algorithm creates a pair of public-private keys that are shared by entities that perform encryption.
D. The private key is never sent across after it is generated.
E. The public key is used to decrypt the message that was encrypted by the private key.
F. The private key is used to decrypt the message that was encrypted by the public key.
Q174. Which statement best describes a key difference in IPv6 fragmentation support compared to IPv4?
A. In IPv6, IP fragmentation is no longer needed because all Internet links must have an IP MTU of 1280 bytes or greater.
B. In IPv6, PMTUD is no longer performed by the source node of an IP packet.
C. In IPv6, IP fragmentation is no longer needed since all nodes must perform PMTUD and send packets equal to or smaller than the minimum discovered path MTU.
D. In IPv6, PMTUD is no longer performed by any node since the don't fragment flag is removed from the IPv6 header.
E. In IPv6, IP fragmentation is performed only by the source node of a large packet, and not by any other devices in the data path.
Q175. An internal DNS server requires a NAT on a Cisco IOS router that is dual-homed to separate ISPs using distinct CIDR blocks. Which NAT capability is required to allow hosts in each CIDR block to contact the DNS server via one translated address?
A. NAT overload
B. NAT extendable
C. NAT TCP load balancing
D. NAT service-type DNS
E. NAT port-to-application mapping
Q176. Which two statements about the AES algorithm are true? (Choose two)
A. The AES algorithm is an asymmetric block cipher.
B. The AES algorithm operates on a 128-bits block.
C. The AES algorithm uses a fixed length-key of 128 bits.
D. The AES algorithm does not give any advantage over 3DES due to the same key length.
E. The AES algorithm consist of four functions. Three functions provide confusion-diffusion and one provides encryption.
Q177. Which two ISE Probes would be required to distinguish accurately the difference between an iPad and a MacBook Pro? (Choose two.)
A. DHCP or DHCPSPAN
F. DHCP TRAP
Q178. Which two statements about SOX are true? (Choose two.)
A. SOX is an IEFT compliance procedure for computer systems security.
B. SOX is a US law.
C. SOX is an IEEE compliance procedure for IT management to produce audit reports.
D. SOX is.a private organization that provides best practices for financial institution computer systems.
E. Section 404 of SOX is related to IT compliance.
Rebirth cbt nuggets 350-018:
Q179. Which query type is required for an nslookup on an IPv6 addressed host?
Q180. What is the function of this command?
switch(config-if)# switchport port-security mac-address sticky
A. It allows the switch to restrict the MAC addresses on the switch port, based on the static
MAC addresses configured in the startup configuration.
B. It allows the administrator to manually configure the secured MAC addresses on the switch port.
C. It allows the switch to permanently store the secured MAC addresses in the MAC address table (CAM table).
D. It allows the switch to perform sticky learning, in which the dynamically learned MAC addresses are copied from the MAC address table (CAM table) to the startup configuration.
E. It allows the switch to dynamically learn the MAC addresses on the switch port, and the MAC addresses will be added to the running configuration
Q181. Which C3PL configuration component is used to tune the inspection timers such as setting the tcp idle-time and tcp synwait-time on the Cisco ZBFW?
A. class-map type inspect
B. parameter-map type inspect
C. service-policy type inspect
D. policy-map type inspect tcp
E. inspect-map type tcp
Q182. Which three statements are true about MACsec? (Choose three.)
A. It supports GCM modes of AES and 3DES.
B. It is defined under IEEE 802.1AE.
C. It provides hop-by-hop encryption at Layer 2.
D. MACsec expects a strict order of frames to prevent anti-replay.
E. MKA is used for session and encryption key management.
F. It uses EAP PACs to distribute encryption keys.
Q183. Which statement about DHCP snooping is true?
A. The dynamic ARP inspection feature must be enabled for DHCP snooping to work.
B. DHCP snooping is enabled on a per-VLAN basis.
C. DHCP snooping builds a binding database using information that is extracted from intercepted ARP requests.
D. DHCP snooping is enabled on a per-port basis.
E. DHCP snooping is does not rate-limit DHCP traffic from trusted ports.
Q184. Which two IPv6 tunnel types support only point-to-point communication? (Choose two.)
A. manually configured
B. automatic 6to4
Q185. Refer to the exhibit.
Which option describes the behavior of this configuration?
A. Devices that perform IEEE 802.1X should be in the MAC address database for successful authentication.
B. IEEE 802.1x devices must fail MAB to perform IEEE 802.1X authentication.
C. If 802.1X fails, the device will be assigned to the default guest VLAN.
D. The device will perform subsequent IEEE 802.1X authentication if it passed MAB authentication.
E. If the device fails IEEE 802.1X, it will start MAB again.
Q186. When is the supplicant considered to be clientless?
A. when the authentication server does not have credentials to authenticate.
B. when the authenticator is missing the dot1x guest VLAN under the port with which the supplicant is connected.
C. when the supplicant fails EAP-MD5 challenge with the authentication server.
D. when the supplicant fails to respond to EAPOL messages from the authenticator.
E. when the authenticator is missing the reauthentication timeout configuration under the port with which the supplicant is connected.
Q187. Refer to the exhibit of an ISAKMP debug.
Which message of the exchange is failing?
A. main mode 1
B. main mode 3
C. aggressive mode 1
D. main mode 5
E. aggressive mode 2
Q188. Refer to the exhibit.
Which message could contain an authenticated initial_contact notify during IKE main mode negotiation?
A. message 3
B. message 5
C. message 1
D. none, initial_contact is sent only during quick mode
E. none, notify messages are sent only as independent message types
Q189. Which of the following best describes Chain of Evidence in the context of security forensics?
A. Evidence is locked down, but not necessarily authenticated.
B. Evidence is controlled and accounted for to maintain its authenticity and integrity.
C. The general whereabouts of evidence is known.
D. Someone knows where the evidence is and can say who had it if it is not logged.
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