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2016 Jun 350-080 passing score:
Q241. Which two statements about Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switches are correct? (Choose two.)
A. When VSM interfaces are created for a virtual machine, the VMware vSwitch port-group configuration is used initially, which requires the creation of a port-group name for these interfaces and an appropriate VLAN. The simplest configuration is to create a single port group (for example, VSM-Interfaces), that includes all the interfaces that use this port group and the same VLAN.
B. The mgmt0 interface on the VSM does not necessarily require its own VLAN. In fact, you can use the same VLAN to which the VMware vCenter Server belongs. The VSM management VLAN is really no different from any other virtual machine data VLAN. Alternatively, network administrators can
designate a special VLAN for network device management.
C. Always deploy the Cisco Nexus 1000V Series VSM in pairs, with one VSM that is defined as the primary module and the other that is defined as the secondary module on two separate hosts.
D. The service console is a critical interface that resides on every logical server.
E. mgmt 0 interface on the VSM always use VLAN 1 for communication with VEM modules.
Q242. Refer to the exhibit.
Given this FCoE topology, host VFC interface and FC storage are in the same VSAN (VSAN 10). The VSAN is in the allow list for both ISLs. Both ISLs are up at 4 GB.
Which command can be issued on the N5K command line to confirm that SCSI traffic from the host to the storage will flow across both links, as opposed to using only one link?
A. show fspf traffic vsan 10
B. show vsan 10
C. show trunk protocol
D. show fcroute unicast vsan 10
Q243. Which two Fibre Channel features are not supported in Cisco Nexus 5500 and Nexus 5000 platforms? (Choose two.)
A. port security
B. fabric binding
D. port tracking
Q244. Which two statements about the FCIP Write Acceleration feature are true? (Choose two.)
A. WAN throughput is maximized by minimizing the impact of WAN latency for write operations.
B. The Write Acceleration feature does not have to be enabled on both sides of the FCIP link.
C. The FCIP Write Acceleration feature can only be used with multilink port channels if they are constructed with port channel protocol.
D. The Write Acceleration feature cannot be used across FSPF equal cost paths in FCIP deployments.
E. The Write Acceleration feature works by immediately returning the SCSI status on the initiator side of the FCIP link.
Q245. The OTV overlay interface is a logical multiaccess and multicast-capable interface that must be explicitly defined by the user, and is the location where the entire OTV configuration is applied. Which two statements about the OTV overlay interface are true? (Choose two.)
A. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the overlay interface.
B. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the routed domain.
C. When the OTV edge device receives a Layer 2 frame that is destined for a remote data center site, the frame is logically forwarded to the join interface.
D. The OTV edge device performs the dynamic OTV encapsulation on the Layer 2 packet and sends it to the overlay interface toward the routed domain.
E. The OTV edge device performs the static OTV encapsulation on the Layer 3 packet and sends it to the join interface toward the switching domain.
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Q246. Refer to the exhibit.
Based on the output, what is the most likely reason for the failure of the iSCSI boot?
A. There is no gateway configured on the iSCSI vNIC.
B. The LUN is not masked correctly on the storage array.
C. CHAP authentication is not configured correctly.
D. The latency between the imitator and target is too high.
Q247. Refer to the exhibit.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. Links operating at 2 Gbps support only one VSAN.
B. VSAN 99 is definitely not configured on the remote switch.
C. B2B credit must not be 255 on the remote switch for VSAN 99.
D. Domain ID overlap could cause VSAN 99 isolation.
E. The zone set database for VSAN 99 does not meet merge requirements.
Q248. Nexus# ther igmp snooping vlan 120
IGMP Snooping information for vlan 120
IGMP snooping disabled
Optimised Multicast Flood (OMF) disabled
IGMP querier none
Switch-querier enabled, address 18.104.22.168, currently not running
IGMPv3 Explicit tracking enabled
IGMPv2 Fast leave disabled
IGMPv1/v2 Report suppression enabled
IGMPv3 Report suppression disabled
Link Local Groups suppression enabled
Router port detection using PIM Hellos, IGMP Queries
Number of router-ports: 0
Number of groups: 0
Which statement best describes what is depicted in the show command output?
A. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because the IGMP feature has not been enabled on the switch with the feature igmp command.
B. The IGMP snooping querier for VLAN 120 is not in a running state because the Loopback interface configured with 22.214.171.124/32 is currently in a down state.
C. IGMP snooping has been disabled on the VLAN 120 SVI.
D. IGMP snooping has been disabled for VLAN 120 in VLAN configuration mode.
E. IGMP snooping is not active for VLAN 120 because VLAN 120 does not exist in the VLAN database.
Q249. Which three statements about FabricPath are true? (Choose three.)
A. Only FabricPath VLANs can cross a FabricPath domain.
B. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F1 or F2 ports only.
C. With FabricPath, vPC must be changed to vPC+.
D. F1 ports must be placed into a separate VDCs.
E. A vPC+ peer link can be formed out of F2 ports only.
Q250. Which GSS "source access list" is used to allow access to GSS by clients when GSS is being used as the DNS?
A. Client IP
B. Proxy IP
C. Client and proxy IP
D. Neither client nor proxy IP
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