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2016 Jun HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:

Q31. Which of the following measures the time a cathode-ray tube (CRT) electron beam takes to paint a screen from top to bottom? 

A. Bus width 

B. Dot Pitch 

C. Video RAM size 

D. Refresh rate 

Answer: D 

Explanation: Refresh rate measures the time a CRT electron beam takes to paint a screen from top to bottom. A monitor's image is updated 60 to 85 times per second. Refresh rate lower than 70-75 Hz is likely to cause noticeable screen flicker, eyestrain, and headaches. You should look for a refresh rate of 75 Hz or better to avoid these problems. Answer: B is incorrect. Dot Pitch is spacing between dots on a computer's monitor. The closer the dots, the sharper the image. The space between dots should not be greater than 0.25 mm. Answer: C is incorrect. VRAM, also known as Video RAM, is used to store image data for processing by the video adapter. It is the memory that stores information about the pictures that display on the monitor screen. 


Q32. Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two. 

A. DB-25 

B. DB-9 

C. PS/2 

D. USB 

Answer: CD 

Explanation: The PS/2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard. 


Q33. Which of the following devices enables you to input letters, numbers, and other characters into the computer for storage or manipulation? 

A. Mouse 

B. Keyboard 

C. Monitor 

D. Printer 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A keyboard enables you to input letters, numbers, and other characters into the computer for storage or manipulation. 


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Q34. Which of the following is the default resolution for a VGA monitor? 

A. 320x200-pixels 

B. 640x480-pixels 

C. 800x600-pixels 

D. 1024x768-pixels 

Answer: B 

Explanation: Video Graphic Array (VGA) monitors have a default resolution of 640x480-pixels. This is known as standard VGA resolution. Although computers typically use this resolution by default, you can get better resolution using a specifically designed video driver for the installed adapter. Answer: A, C, D are incorrect. Super VGA monitors have a default resolution of 800x600-pixels. A VGA or SVGA connector is a 15-pin, three rows, female connector, on the back of a PC used for connecting monitors. 


Q35. You are assigned the duty of converting the data included in a patient's electronic health record from word data to number data for the purpose of statistical analysis. Which of the following duties have you been asked to perform? 

A. Quantitative Analysis 

B. Statistical Analysis 

C. Qualitative Analysis 

D. Master Patient Index 

Answer: A 

Explanation: Quantitative analysis refers to information contained within a patient's EHR being converted from words to numbers. The numbers of interest are then quantified and statistically analyzed. Answer: C is incorrect. Qualitative Analysis is incorrect as this is used to derive an in-depth, non-numerical description of the information contained within a patient's medical record. A qualitative analysis does not contain any statistical analyses. Answer: D is incorrect. Master Patient Index (MPI) is incorrect as this is a database that contains a unique index for every patient registered at a healthcare organization. Answer: B is incorrect. Statistical analysis is incorrect as this is the method used to analyze the data obtained from a quantitative analysis of a patient's EHR. 


Q36. While installing a printer in a newly remodeled office at a large physician's practice, you consider what the best placement for the printer might be in order to protect patient's health information. Which of the following is a good guideline for printer/fax/copier policy? 

A. PHI should never be printed on a shared or networked printer. 

B. PHI in hardcopy form should be disposed of as soon as possible. 

C. Printers and copiers used for printing of PHI should be in a secure, non-public location. If the equipment is in a public location, the information being printed or copied is required to be strictly monitored. 

D. Physical access to the printer should be restricted only to providers. 

Answer: C 

Explanation: Ideally, printers, faxes and copiers in a healthcare facility should only be placed in secure, non-public locations. However, there are some high traffic areas where healthcare personnel interact with the publiA, C printer may be required for receipts, patient instructions and other documentation. A printer in this location should be strictly monitored, any hardcopies should be picked up promptly and given to the correct recipient, filed or disposed of as needed. Answer: D is incorrect. Many employees require access to printers, faxes and copiers, and access cannot be limited to one type of employee. There are many employees that will need access to PHI to carry out the functions of a healthcare facility, not just for treatment, but for the business operations of the facility. Printing access must be managed wisely and monitored closely to protect PHI, but this kind of extreme restriction would not allow the facility to function properly. Answer: A is incorrect. Many facilities have multiple workstations and mobile devices connected to a shared printer. Although extra care needs to be exercised both in the network security of the printer as well as the physical security of hardcopy documents printed out, it is possible to protect PHI and still use a shared printer. Often, one individual in physical proximity to the shared printer is assigned responsibility for the security of the hardcopy printouts and that they are promptly picked up so that no PHI exposure is risked. Answer: B is incorrect. Destroying hardcopies as a means of protecting PHI may actually cause some information to be lost. It is important to always observe the policies of record retention and disposal that the healthcare organization has set up in order to make sure that key information is properly filed and eventually disposed of in an approved manner. 


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Q37. You have the duty of ensuring patient's medical records are completed in the required amount of time. You are required by the Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations to have a patient's medical record complete within how many days after discharge? 

A. 14 days 

B. 7 days 

C. 24 hours 

D. 30 days. 

Answer: D 

Explanation: The Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations requires a patient's medical record to be complete within a time period not to exceed 30 days. Answer: C is incorrect. The regulation stipulated by the Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations requires a patient's medical record to be complete within a time period not to exceed 30 days. Answer: B is incorrect. The regulation stipulated by the Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations requires a patient's medical record to be complete within a time period not to exceed 30 days. Answer: A is incorrect. The regulation stipulated by the Joint Commission for the Accreditation of Health Organizations requires a patient's medical record to be complete within a time period not to exceed 30 days. 


Q38. Which of the following statements are true regarding the security advantages of cloud computing?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply. 

A. It has advanced honeypot capabilities. 

B. It provides a greater resiliency. 

C. It can be implemented without any organizational changes. 

D. It provides fault tolerance and reliability. 

Answer: ABD 

Explanation: The security advantages for cloud computing are as follows: It provides data fragmentation and dispersal. It builds a dedicated security team. It has a greater investment in security infrastructure. It provides fault tolerance and reliability. It provides a greater resiliency. It provides hypervisor protection against network attacks. It offers possible reduction of Certification and Accreditation activities. It provides simplification of compliance analysis. An unbiased party holds the data. It has low-cost disaster recovery and data storage solutions. It provides on-demand security controls. It provides real-time detection of system tampering. It provides rapid re-constitution of services. It has advanced honeypot capabilities. Answer: C is incorrect. Organizational changes are needed to implement cloud computing. 


Q39. Which of the following commands can you use to manually force a client to re-register itself with a dynamic DNS server? 

A. IPCONFIG /renew 

B. IPCONFIG /release 

C. IPCONFIG /registerdns 

D. NBTSTAT -rr E. DNS /rr 

Answer: C 

Explanation: To ensure that all names are correctly registered when you restart the DHCP client service, you should type the ipconfig command with the registerdns switch. IPCONFIG /renew refreshes the DHCP lease. IPCONFIG /release releases the DHCP option. When you run the NBTSTAT -rr command at a command prompt, the names of the WINS client can be re-registered in the WINS database. 


Q40. You are asked to install an information system in the Nuclear Medicine department in order to record the use of radioisotopes. Which type of information system would you install for this purpose? 

A. Enterprise System 

B. Departmental System 

C. Intradepartmental System 

D. External System 

Answer: B 

Explanation: A departmental information system is a system that is that is limited and serves the purposes of one department or domain. Examples are dose management systems that are used by pharmacies. Answer: A is incorrect. Enterprise system is incorrect as this type of system is designed for use for all departments that encompass a large health system including hospitals, clinics and nursing homes. Answer: D is incorrect. External system is incorrect as this type of system is shared by many health organizations to report information required by regulatory agencies or as an information exchange for regional health information networks. Answer: C is incorrect. Intradepartmental system is incorrect as this type of system is primarily used by one department but shares functions and information with other departments. 



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