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2016 Mar HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:
Q316. While working on upgrading software on a workstation in the emergency department of a hospital, a multi-car pileup occurs and the injured are brought into the ER as trauma cases. There's noise, confusion and a lot of chaos. What is the best etiquette for dealing with this situation? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Evacuate the area during high traffic.
B. Try to find out the patient's condition and see if there is anything you can do to help.
C. Don't stare into patient's rooms or at patient's as they go by on gurneys or in wheelchairs.
D. Continue your project, while moving if anyone needs access to systems or files near your position.
Explanation: Continue your job. The system upgrade is necessary and needs to be finished quickly and thoroughly. Move if necessary to allow access to the phone or needed files or equipment. Do not stare at patients, to not pry into the details of what is going on. Don't' repeat what you may hear or see. Answer: A is incorrect. Your job is important to the flow of work in the emergency room. If you stop every time something happens, the work may never be done and the system would be unusable for a long period. Unless you are specifically told to clear the area, remain and see the job through with a professional attitude. Answer: B is incorrect. It is not your job to care for patients or their families. It's your job to make the technology in the emergency room function at peak performance so that others can do their jobs effectively and efficiently.
Q317. You are employed at a large facility that employs several file clerks and sees numerous patients on a daily basis. Which of the following types of file systems would be appropriate for this type of facility?
A. Motorized Revolving Files
B. Filing Cabinets with Drawers
C. Open Shelf Files
D. Compressible Units with Open Files
Explanation: Open shelf files is best for high volume facilities with multiple filing staff to provide security. This method allows for easy access albeit less secure and requires significant space. Answer: D is incorrect. Compressible units with open files is best for limited space, medium volume facilities with two or three file clerks. This method allows for easy access and saves space. Answer: B is incorrect. Filing cabinets with drawers is incorrect as this method for small, low volume facilities is filing cabinets with drawers. This type of filing allows for patient records to be locked, fireproofed and protected from the environment, however, this method required significant space. Answer: A is incorrect. Motorized revolving files is best for limited space, low volume facilities with one file clerk. This option allows for patient records to be covered and locked but is expensive to acquire and maintain.
Q318. Throughout your medical history you were diagnosed with arthritis in your lumbar spine. The term arthritis is defined as?
A. Study of joints
B. Surgical Incision of a joint
C. Inflammation of a joint
D. Disease of a joint
Explanation: In medical terminology, any word that ends with the suffix -itis refers to an inflammatory condition. Examples are arthritis means inflammation of a joint, laryngitis means inflammation of the larynx, and gastritis means inflammation of the stomach or stomach lining. Answer: D is incorrect. Disease is incorrect as any condition that refers to a disease process is accompanied by the suffix -osis, example diverticulosis is as disease of the diverticulum. Answer: A is incorrect. Study of is incorrect as any term referring to the study of anything end with the suffix -ology, example Radiology is the study of radiation, cardiology is the study of the heart. Answer: B is incorrect. Surgical Opening is incorrect as any medical condition that refers to opening ends with the suffix -otomy, example thoracotomy means an opening was made in the thorax.
Q319. Which of the following commands can verify connectivity between two computers? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Explanation: TRACERT and PING commands can verify connectivity between two computers. TRACERT utility is used to trace the path taken by TCP/IP packets to a remote computer. It traces and reports each router or gateway crossed by a TCP/IP packet on its way to the remote host. The TRACERT utility can be used with the target computer's name or IP address. It is used to detect and resolve network connection problems. The ping command-line utility is used to test connectivity with a host on a TCP/IP-based network. This is achieved by sending out a series of packets to a specified destination host. On receiving the packets, the destination host responds with a series of replies. These replies can be used to determine whether or not the network is working properly. Answer: C is incorrect. IPCONFIG is a command-line utility that displays the current TCP/IP configuration, such as the IP address, subnet mask, default gateway, etc. of a networked computer. It refreshes Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) and Domain Name System (DNS) settings. Users can run IPCONFIG from the command prompt whenever they need to know the status of a computer's TCP/IP configuration. Answer: A is incorrect. NSLOOKUP is a tool for diagnosing and troubleshooting Domain Name System (DNS) problems. It performs its function by sending queries to the DNS server and obtaining detailed responses at the command prompt. This information can be useful for diagnosing and resolving name resolution issues, verifying whether or not the resource records are added or updated correctly in a zone, and debugging other server-related problems. This tool is installed along with the TCP/IP protocol through the Control Panel.
Q320. Your primary duty as a healthcare information technologist is to design and implement an information system to be shared by many health organizations to report information required by regulatory agencies. Which of the following types of information systems are you responsible for implementing?
A. Departmental System
B. External System
C. Enterprise System
D. Hospital Wide System
Explanation: An external hospital information system is designed to be shared by many health organizations to report information required by regulatory agencies or as an information exchange for regional health information networks. Answer: D is incorrect. Hospital Wide System is incorrect as this is a health information system that is designed for the integration of various departmental systems or one that provides the primary services for a hospital or clinical area. Answer: A is incorrect. Departmental System is incorrect as this type of hospital system is limited and serves the purposes of one department or domain. Examples are dose management systems that are used by pharmacies. Answer: C is incorrect. Enterprise system is incorrect as this type of system is designed for use for all departments that encompass a large health system including hospitals, clinics and nursing homes.
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Q321. An open heart surgical procedure is required to save your life. You choose not to have the surgery. This is your right based on which of the following pieces of legislation?
D. Patient Self Determination Act
Explanation: The Patient Self Determination Act, enacted in 1990, is the piece of of legislation preserves the patient's wishes, rights, healthcare options and advanced directives even if the decision results in the death of the patient. Answer: B is incorrect. COBRA, the Consolidated Omnibus Budget Reconciliation Act, was devised in 1985 gives workers and their families who lose their health benefits the right to choose to continue group health benefits provided by their group health plan for limited periods of time under certain circumstances such as voluntary or involuntary job loss, reduction in the hours worked, transition between jobs, death, divorce, and other life events. Answer: C is incorrect. EMTALA is incorrect as this legislation legally obligates health care facilities to provide emergent care regardless of citizenship, legal status or ability to pay. Answer: A is incorrect. HIPPA is incorrect as this legislation is designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information.
Q322. During your yearly medical physical, your doctor diagnoses you with leukocytosis. Leukocytosis is defined as?
A. Study of white blood cells
B. Surgery involving white blood cells
C. Inflammation of the white blood cells
D. Disease of the white blood cells
Explanation: In medical terminology, any word that end in the suffix -osis refers to a disease process of a particular area. Examples, diverticulosis is disease of the diverticulum, tuberculosis is a disease process of the tubercles of the lungs and leukocytosis is a disease process of the white blood cells. Answer: C is incorrect. Inflammation is incorrect as any medical term referring to inflammation ends with the suffix -itis. Answer: A is incorrect. Study of is incorrect as any term referring to the study of anything end with the suffix -ology, example Radiology is the study of radiation,Cardiology is the study of the heart. Answer: B is incorrect. Opening is incorrect as any medical condition that refers to opening ends with the suffix -otomy, example thoracotomy means an opening was made in the thorax.
Q323. Which of the following ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Explanation: The PS/2 and USB ports on a computer are used to connect a keyboard.
Q324. You are working on the information systems of a nursing facility that works with elderly patients over the age of sixty five. You have specific QUESTION NO: of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act rules with regards to a new information system you are installing. What agency can you contact for help?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
Explanation: CMS is the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid, which administers the Medicare program (health insurance for people over 65 years of age) and helps oversee states implementation of Medicaid programs (for low income people). The CMS helps develop technology for health information management and their standards are often applied across the board throughout all healthcare facilities. They are heavily involved in implementation of the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA). HHS is the US Department of Health and Human Services, and is the government department that oversees CMS. They enforce HIPAA standards and can point you in the right direction to get the information you need about HIPAA at your facility. Answer: B is incorrect. NIST is the National Institute of Standards and Technology. Although they develop publications intended to help developers build better electronic health record systems, they will likely not be able to give you specific information on HIPAA implementation at your facility. Answer: D is incorrect. OSHA is the Occupational Safety and Health Administration, which deals with rules and regulations regarding health and safety in the workplace. They are not directly responsible in the implementation of HIPAA guidelines.
Q325. This federal organization helps with testing healthcare information technology initiatives,
certification of Electronic Health Record technology, conformance testing, and provides tools and resources for Health IT testing and support, as well as white papers on healthcare IT issues.
Explanation: NIST is the National Institute Standards and Technology. As defined in the Health Information Technology for Economic and Clinical Health (HITECH) Act, NIST is collaborating with industry to ensure that a health IT standards testing infrastructure is created. The testing infrastructure is modular by design and implementation. Therefore, as future standards are needed, appropriate testing tools can be developed, using the same infrastructure. Answer: C is incorrect. HHS is the acronym for the US Department of Health and Human Services. Although HHS is often the lead department working on advancing the adoption of health care technology and enforcement of HIPAA and HITECH provisions, this aspect of HITECH legislation is managed by NIST, under the Department of Commerce. Answer: D is incorrect. The ONC is the Office of the National Coordinator of Health Information Technology, and is the division within the Department of Health and Human Services that promotes the adoption of healthcare technology and the promotion of nationwide health information exchange. However, the development of standards and IT testing is left to the National Institution of Standards and Technology (NIST) Answer: A is incorrect. CMS is the acronym for the Centers of Medicare and Medicaid Services. CMS administers Medicare and monitors state Medicaid programs. CMS is under the Department of HHS and CMS is involved in the development of healthcare standards and are very interested in the development of healthcare IT standards, but they are not charged with the development and testing of those standards. That is the task of the NIST.
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Q326. Which of the following are default ports for the FTP service? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
Explanation: By default, the FTP service uses TCP port 21 for session control and TCP port 20 for data transfer. Answer: B is incorrect. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL) uses TCP port 443 as the default port. Answer: D is incorrect. Hypertext Transfer Protocol (HTTP) uses TCP port 80 as the default port.
Q327. Your computer is not connected to the UPS. What can happen in an event of power failure?
A. CMOS battery failure.
B. Damage of components.
C. Distorted display.
D. BIOS configuration is reset.
Explanation: If your computer is not connected to the UPS, power failure may cause damage to peripheral components. You can avoid such problems by using UPS and surge protector.
Q328. You have been the victim of a terrible auto accident that has left you paralyzed from the waist down. Which of the following types of medical facilities would you choose for your medical care?
A. Specialty Hospital
B. General Hospital.
C. Rehabilitation Hospital
D. Psychiatric Hospital
Explanation: A rehabilitation hospital is hospital is required to provide diagnosis, treatment, restorative and adjustment services for individuals who are disabled. Answer: B is incorrect. General Hospital is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide diagnosis and treatment for medical services which include Radiology, laboratory services and surgical services. Answer: A is incorrect. Specialty hospital is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide treatment for specific disorders such as cancer, burns or women's health. Answer: D is incorrect. Psychiatric hospital is incorrect as this type of hospital is required to provide diagnosis and treatment for individuals who are diagnosed with mental illness.
Q329. You are working on a problem in a system which sending insurance billing information to a remote site. The systems uses messaging with HL7 interface specifications. What is the message identifier field for insurance information?
Explanation: IN1 is the message identifier field for insurance information. Data fields within the insurance information segment include IN1-2, insurance ID number, IN1-8, group number, and similar data fields. Answer: C is incorrect. MSA is the message identifier field for "message acknowledgement segment" and is used to acknowledge a previously received message. Answer: B is incorrect. OBR is a message segment for a laboratory order requesting observation. Answer: D is incorrect. SCH is the schedule activity information segment that is used for messaging in scheduling programs.
Q330. A physician maintains a series of progress notes on a patient during the patient's stay at the hospital. These notes are entered into an electronic medical record at a workstation. What does the physician need to maintain during this process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. The physician needs to maintain the integrity of the record. She cannot erase any information, only add changes or corrections and she needs to electronically sign at appropriate points in the record.
B. The physician needs to maintain the confidentiality of the record. They have to make sure that the workstation is logged out of when not in use, so that no unauthorized individuals can have access to patient data.
C. The physician needs to maintain the security of the record. They have to check that no one else has viewed or altered the record from outside sources.
D. The physician needs to maintain the accessibility of the record. They have to provide access to the patient or their designated representatives.
Explanation: The physician has a responsibility to check that all of the progress notes, physician orders, history and other information about the patient that they are a part of is accurately and completely entered and that they electronically sign to acknowledge that they have checked this. They also have a responsibility to keep PHI confidential and make sure that computer systems are not left on where unauthorized individuals could have access to patient data. Answer: C is incorrect. This is not the responsibility of the physician, but the responsibility of healthcare IT and healthcare information management to see that access control for the patient recorA, D log of access is maintain and to report and fix any security breaches. Answer: D is incorrect. Release of information and access to the patient record is the responsibility of the medical records or release of information office within a healthcare facility, not the physician.