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Exam Code: HIT-001 (Practice Exam Latest Test Questions VCE PDF)
Exam Name: CompTIA Healthcare IT Technician Exam
Certification Provider: CompTIA
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2016 Apr HIT-001 Study Guide Questions:
Q301. Which of the following types of budget incorporates the budgets of each individual business unit?
A. Organizational Budget
B. Operating Budget
C. Statistical Budget
D. Master Budget
Explanation: The master budget incorporates the budget of each department or business unit into one budget for the entire facility Answer: C is incorrect. Statistical budget is incorrect as this type of budget budget predicts future volume based primarily on historical data. Answer: A is incorrect. Organizational budget is incorrect as this answer choice is meant simply for a distractor. Organizational budgets are not Opused in a healthcare setting. Answer: B is incorrect. Operating budget is incorrect as this type of budget predicts labor, supplies and other expenses based on predicted work volume.
Q302. There are many times in the Healthcare Insurance Portability and Accountability Act when important privacy exceptions or regulations are made for "TPO" uses. What does TPO stand for in HIPAA and other healthcare regulations?
A. Treatment, Payments and Operations
B. Tax, Purchase and Oversight
C. Time, Privacy and Objectives
D. Treatment, Providers and Organizations
Explanation: The HIPAA Privacy Rule establishes protection for personal health information, carefully balanced to avoid creating unnecessary barriers to the delivery of quality health care. As such, the Rule generally prohibits a covered entity from using or disclosing protected health information unless authorized by patients, except where this prohibition would result in unnecessary interference with access to quality health care. To avoid interfering with an individual's access to quality health care or the efficient payment for such health care, the Privacy Rule permits a covered entity to use and disclose protected health information, with certain limits and protections, for treatment, payment, and health care operations activities. ? "Treatment" generally means the provision, coordination, or management of health care and related services among health care providers. "Payment" encompasses the various activities of health care providers to obtain payment or be reimbursed for their services and of a health plan to obtain premiums, to fulfill their coverage responsibilities and provide benefits under the plan, and to obtain or provide reimbursement for the provision of health care. "Health care operations" are certain administrative, financial, legal, and quality improvement activities of a covered entity that are necessary to run its business and to support the core functions of treatment and payment. Answer: C is incorrect. There are no provisions with these terms in HIPAA regulation. Answer: D is incorrect. "Providers" would be covered by the term "Treatment" and "Organizations" is a very broad term that could apply to a wide variety of entities. Answer: B is incorrect. There are no provisions with these terms in HIPAA, although taxes, purchase orders and oversight might be included in the Payment or Operations functions of a covered entity.
Q303. Ambulatory Surgical Centers provide outpatient surgeries, pain management and diagnostic procedures. These often use the latest in electronic health records and health management software systems, and require the services of healthcare IT personnel. As a healthcare IT professional, who are you most likely to deal with during your employment at an ambulatory surgical center?
A. Chief Executive Officer
B. Nursing Manager
C. Chief of Medical Staff
Explanation: Often the manager of day to day operations at an ambulatory surgical center is simply referred to as an "administrator". IT issues, regulatory requirements, finance, billing, many aspects of the smooth functioning of a small ambulatory surgical center are covered by the administrator, or delegated by the administrator to the next layer of management. Answer: C is incorrect. Chief of Medical Staff is not going to be directly involved in IT matters. Answer: A is incorrect. The Chief Executive Officer is not going to be directly involved in IT matters on a day to day basis. Answer: B is incorrect. Although potentially consulted for design decisions and training programs, a nursing manager is not likely to be in charge of managing IT matters for an ambulatory surgical center.
Q304. Your medical practice is being audited by a physician reviewer of a PPO with whom your practice has a contract. In order to determine the medical competency of all the physicians at your practice, the partners of the practice wish to review five charts from your patient files to review provider performance regarding the newer associate doctors. In this situation what do you need to do comply with HIPAA?
A. Ensure that the patients have signed an authorization to allow for their information to be reviewed by doctors other than their own doctor.
B. Copy the files and remove or black-out identifying information
C. The associate doctors are required to sign a Business Associate agreement.
D. Simply make sure that the patients had signed the HIPAA privacy notification.
Explanation: Under HIPAA, as long as patients receive a privacy notification prior to treatment, they are informed that their information may be shared for the entity to carry out healthcare operations. HIPAA includes reviewing physician competency under healthcare operations.
Answer: A is incorrect. Authorizations are signed only in certain instances that usually fall outside of the treatment, healthcare operations, and payment functions of an entity. Answer: B is incorrect. It is unnecessary under HIPAA since healthcare operations allow for this sharing of information.
Answer: C is incorrect. Business Associates are those individuals or entities outside a covered entity. In this case, the physicians are within the covered entity.
Q305. Which of the following titles of HIPAA protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs?
A. Title I
B. Title II
C. Title III
D. Title IV
Explanation: The Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act (HIPAA) of 1996 was enacted by the U.S. Congress in 1996. According to the Centers for Medicare and Medicaid Services (CMS) Website, Title I of HIPAA protects health insurance coverage for workers and their families when they change or lose their jobs. Title II of HIPAA, known as the Administrative Simplification (AS) provisions, requires the establishment of national standards for electronic health care transactions and national identifiers for providers, health insurance plans, and employers. This is intended to help people keep their information private, though in practice it is normal for providers and health insurance plans to require the waiver of HIPAA rights as a condition of service. The Administration Simplification provisions also address the security and privacy of health data. The standards are meant to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the nation's health care system by encouraging the widespread use of electronic data interchange in the U.S. health care system. Answer: C, D are incorrect. These are not the valid titles of HIPAA.
Leading HIT-001 training:
Q306. Which of the following payment terms is based on the patient's ability to pay?
B. Fee for Services
C. Sliding Scale Fee
D. Customary Charges
Explanation: Sliding scale fee is a payment term which is common in low income areas and is based on the patient's ability to pay. Answer: B is incorrect. Fee for Services in incorrect as this term of payment is dependent on the cost of the provider to provide services such as lab tests, x-rays etc. Hospitals or other facilities receiving fee for service are paid for each individual service that is provided. Answer: D is incorrect. Customary charges is incorrect as this type of payment term is based on what is normally charged or what is reasonable for the service provided. Answer: A is incorrect. Capitation is incorrect as this payment term is a pre-paid amount based on a per-person or per-capita amount.
Q307. Which of the following statements regarding the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act's "Security Rule" is NOT accurate?
A. The Security Rule mandates efforts to protect the security of PHI from anticipated threats and hazards, and anticipated uses and disclosures not permitted by the HIPAA Privacy rule.
B. The Security Rule only covers electronic protected health information (PHI), no other media.
C. The Security Rule mandates a series of administrative, technical and physical safeguards to protect the confidentiality, integrity and availability of protected health information.
D. The HIPAA Security Rule mandates a strict methodology for the implementation of security standards and safeguards
Explanation: Options A, B, C are all important components of the HIPAA Security Rule, whereas Option D is not accurate. The HIPAA Security Rule follows a principle of flexibility, allowing covered entities to develop their own methods and plans for implementing the mandated administrative, physical and technical safeguards depending upon the size, complexity and capabilities of the covered entity. Answer: B is incorrect. Option A is a factual statement. The HIPAA Security Rule and its mandates apply only to the protection of electronic protected health information (ePHI), not paper, film, or other storage media. Answer: C is incorrect. Option B is a factual statement. The key regulations of the Security Rule involve the requirements for administrative, technical and physical safeguards to protect ePHI. Answer: A is incorrect. Option C is a factual statement. It is very important for any organization dealing with the security of ePHI to think about the future of potential physical threats like nature disasters, technical threats like hacking, and anticipate the potential for uses and disclosures in lawsuits or other potentialities.
Q308. A user named Rick wants to configure a TCP/IP network at his residence. He has three computers. He chooses star topology to connect his computers. He wants to configure his computers with static IP addressing. Which of the following are the required parameters that he will configure for each computer on the network?Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. MAC Address
B. Subnet mask
C. IP address
D. Default gateway
Explanation: IP address and subnet mask are the required parameters to configure manual addressing for a computer on a TCP/IP network.
Q309. Which of the following can occur if the power cable runs along with the computer network cable?
A. Broadcast storm
Explanation: If the power cable runs along with the computer network cable, radiation from the power cable, known as electromagnetic interference (EMI) , may be inducted into the computer network cable affecting the signals that pass through it. Answer: C is incorrect. ESD stands for Electrostatic discharge. The static electricity that we generate everyday creates ESD. If you walk across a carpet and touch someone, you experience a mild shock. Electrostatic discharge occurs when the electrostatic charge is transferred from one charged entity to another entity sensitive to that charge. To minimize Electrostatic discharge (ESD) problems, consider wearing a wrist strap when you are working with computer components. A wrist strap is a wire with a watchband-style strap at one enA, D plug or clip on the other end. The wrist strap plug or clip is connected to the ground or to the piece of equipment being worked on. Answer: B is incorrect. Surge is a momentary voltage variation (+/- 170 volts) that lasts from one microsecond to a few milliseconds. Turning on and off large inductive electrical devices such as air conditioners and refrigerators can cause a surge. Answer: A is incorrect. Broadcast storm is a situation in which one or more network devices send jabber packets constantly, thereby increasing the traffic. A faulty network interface card (NIC) that sends jabber packets can be detected by the network monitor software. A faulty NIC can cause a broadcast storm on the network. Broadcast storms caused by a faulty network interface card can be resolved by disabling or replacing the card.
Q310. Which of the following best describes the term protocol?
A. The combination of cable type and access method used on a network.
B. A set of rules.
C. The ability to move data through layers of the OSI model.
D. The permissible amount of data contained in a packet.
Explanation: A protocol is a set of predefined rules that govern how two or more processes communicate and interact to exchange data. Protocols are considered as the building blocks of network communication. Computer protocols are used by communicating devices and software services to format data in a way that all participants understand. It provides a context in which to interpret communicated information.
Approved HIT-001 pdf:
Q311. As a healthcare information technologist, there are standards in which you must abide by for managing and integrating electronic healthcare information. Which of the following is responsible for instituting those standards?
C. Health Level 7
Explanation: Health Level 7 (HL7) is an international community of healthcare subject matter experts and information scientists collaborating to create standards for the exchange, management and integration of electronic healthcare information. HL7 promotes the use of such informatics standards within and among healthcare organizations to increase the effectiveness and efficiency of healthcare information delivery for the benefit of all. Answer: D is incorrect. DICOM is incorrect as this term, short for Digital Imaging and Communications in Medicine, refers to the standard of handling, storing, printing and transmitting information in medical imaging. Answer: B is incorrect. EMTALA is incorrect as this legislation legally obligates health care facilities to provide emergent care regardless of citizenship, legal status or ability to pay. Answer: A is incorrect. HIPPA is incorrect as this is the legislation designed to insure the privacy and security of personal health information.
Q312. You are asked to reduce medical records for a dental practice, you can eliminate all records that are older than which of the following?
A. 10 years
B. 6 years
C. 30 years
D. 4 years
Explanation: All primary dental records must be retained for a period of at least 4 years from the date of the patient's last episode of care. Answer: B is incorrect. 6 years is incorrect as this is the amount of time in which all materials containing HIPAA information must be kept. Answer: A is incorrect. 10 years is incorrect as this is the amount of time all primary medical records must be retained. Answer: C is incorrect. 30 years is incorrect as no medical information is required to be retained for 30 years.
Q313. Which of the following refers to information that relates to any individual's past, present or future physical or mental health?
A. De-Indentified Health Information
B. Archived Health Information
C. Demographic Health Information
D. Individually Identifiable Health Information
Explanation: Individually Identifiable Health Information is information, including demographic information that relates to the individual's past, present or future physical or mental health or condition, the provision of health care to an individual or the past, present or future payment of health care provisions. Answer: A is incorrect. De-identified health information is incorrect as this information requires removal of all data in which a patient can be identified such as name, date of birth, social security number and address. Answer: B is incorrect. Archived Health Information is incorrect as this is health information that has been stored on some sort of media such as a compact disc, dvd or videotape. Answer: C is incorrect. Demographic Health Information is incorrect although, this is a part of individually identifiable health information, it contains no information regarding and individual's illness or treatment. Demographic information is the patient's name, date of birth, address, social security number, insurance information and contact information.
Q314. You may see quite a few physical safeguards within the healthcare facility when dealing with areas where protected health information is handled and stored. Which of the following is NOT an example of physical safeguards for PHI in a healthcare facility?
A. Policies for training employees in security protocols
B. ID badges for employees and staff
C. Engraving of equipment
D. Private Security Patrols
Explanation: An administrative safeguard more than a physical safeguard, it is still a requirement for organizations to have training policies regarding security measures, but it is not a physical safeguard to do so. Answer: B is incorrect. ID badges are a well-recognized and useful physical safeguard for the protection of PHI by limiting access in certain areas by certain authorized individuals. Answer: D is incorrect. Private security patrols are one option that's possible to achieve protection of PHI from tampering or theft. Answer: C is incorrect. Engraving equipment like workstations, monitors are physical property controls that can help prevent theft and the potential exposure of PHI.
Q315. You are the responsible for the medical records of a high profile, well known, adult patient. Which of the following do not require a disclosure of information form in order for medical records be released?
A. News Media
B. Patient's Attorney
C. Physician other than Primary Care Physician
D. Patient's Parents
Explanation: It is not required, but is generally discouraged, for a disclosure of patient information form to be signed in order for a health care facility to release health information to the news media. This is true even thought the patient's privacy may be compromised with release of patient health information that is of public interest and right to know. Answer: B is incorrect. It is required by law for a disclosure of patient information to be signed in order for protected health information to be released to the patient's attorney. Answer: D is incorrect. It is required by law for a disclosure of patient information to be signed in order for protected health information to be released to the parents of an adult child. Answer: C is incorrect. It is required by law for a disclosure of patient information to be signed in order for protected health information to be released to another physician.
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